So there is a lot of questions lately about a Massachusetts law dating from 1913 that reads:
No marriage shall be contracted in this commonwealth by a party residing and intending to continue to reside in another jurisdiction if such marriage would be void if contracted in such other jurisdiction, and every marriage contracted in this commonwealth in violation hereof shall be null and void.
One question is whether said law is constitutional, but another question is what does it mean even if it is. Gov. Romney believes that it means that Massachusetts may not marry non-resident same-sex couples from any other state, and any such marriages performed are null and void under Massachusetts law. He believes this follows since, to his knowledge, same-sex marriage is not legal in any other state of the union. He even sent out letters to the govenors and attorneys general of the other states asking them to inform him if his assumption about their laws was incorrect. Based on this reading, Gov. Romney is asking town clerks to ask for proof of residency and to deny licenses to out-of-state gay couples (except those from Ontario, etc.).
There are other interpretations of the law, though. Attorney General Reilly expressed the opinion that the 1913 law only applies to couples from the 38 states that have passed DOMA legislation expressly prohibiting same-sex marriage. That is his opinion would still allow same-sex couples from New York, Connecticut, and the like to marry in Massachusetts. This is quite an important distinction, because for example, New York's Attorney General Spitzer has issued an opinion that while local New York officials should not issue licenses to same-sex couples, they should recognize those marriages lawfully entered into elsewhere. We see here a rather dizzying scenario for determining whether the same-sex marriage of New York couples entered into in Massachusetts is valid. It's valid in NY if it was lawful in MA, and it's lawful in MA as long as it would not be void if contracted in NY.
GLAD's Mary Bonauto, the lead attorney in Goodridge, presents yet another view:
Ms. Bonauto said that at most, the law would prevent the marriage of couples from the roughly 20 states where laws specifically say that a same-sex marriage would be "void." She said it would not, for example, apply to states like Alabama or Michigan, where the law says a same-sex marriage is "invalid," or Illinois, where the law says same-sex marriages are "prohibited."
"I really think the governor's painting with far too broad a brush in his interpretation," Ms. Bonauto said. "In any law the precise language used matters a great deal."
So right now the biggest confusion in Massachusetts is whose view must the town clerks follow (at least for the time being). Some clerks have indicated that they would continue to do things the way they always have. That is they would just ask the applicants if there was any impediment to their marriage. Oh the confusion. Eventually there will be some court rulings on the subject, but who knows what will happen in the meantime. GLAD is asking non-Massachusetts couples to adopt a wait-and-see approach and to not make any immediate plans until things get worked out. They promise to keep their website updated with information as it becomes available.
And what about the underlying arguments about the law's constitutionality? There has yet to be a case filed on the subject, so of course there have been no briefs filed on it either. In interviews Ms. Bonauto has said the law raises some constitutional issues. Prof. Laurence Tribe has also expressed this view. So far I have seen two concerns raised. One is that Massachusetts has no business enforcing the discriminatory laws of other states, and the second is that such a law would unfairly treat non-residents differently than residents in violation of the privleges and immunities clause. My initial reaction, though, is that both concerns are rather weak. The SJC found there was no rational basis for prohibiting SSM under Massachusetts law. That does not mean that anoter state might not have a rational basis to prohibit it under their own laws. Nor is it the place of the SJC to rule on how other states should interpret their own laws. As for the P&I clause, while it has been applied to limit the ability of states to discriminate against non-residents in matters to applying their trade, or in medical or welfare matters, it has explicitly not applied to areas of domestic relations. It seems to me that the Supreme Court case of Sosna v. Iowa (1975) is quite relevant. That case held that Iowa could require a one-year residency period before a person could seek a divorce. Particulary relevant from the opinion written by J. Rehnquist is the following (internal citations omitted):
Such a requirement additionally furthers the State's parallel interests both in avoiding officious intermeddling in matters in which another State has a paramount interest, and in minimizing the susceptibility of its own divorce decrees to collateral attack. A State such as Iowa may quite reasonably decide that it does not wish to become a divorce mill for unhappy spouses who have lived there as short a time as appellant had when she commenced her action in the state court after having long resided elsewhere. Until such time as Iowa is convinced that appellant intends to remain in the State, it lacks the "nexus between person and place of such permanence as to control the creation of legal relations and responsibilities of the utmost significance." Perhaps even more important, Iowa's interests extend beyond its borders and include the recognition of its divorce decrees by other States under the Full Faith and Credit Clause of the Constitution, Art. IV, 1. For that purpose, this Court has often stated that "judicial power to grant a divorce - jurisdiction, strictly speaking - is founded on domicil."
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